You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the Test.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this Test:
Your results are here!! for" CompTIA Server+ Practice Test 4 "
0 of 60 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
Your Final Score is : 0
You have attempted : 0
Number of Correct Questions : 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions : 0 and Negative marks 0
Average score
Your score
CompTIA Server+
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
You can review your answers by clicking view questions. Important Note : Open Reference Documentation Links in New Tab (Right Click and Open in New Tab).
Answer Review
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
Answer
Review
Unattempted
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Every question in this attempt was answered correctly.
Question 1 of 60
1. Question
A user is unable to save an image file to their home directory on a server. The server technician checks the disk space and ACL on the user’s home directory and finds that the user has enough space and required access to write to the directory. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the user is unable to save the file?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 2 of 60
2. Question
An administrator receives multiple reports that users cannot access a secure website hosted on a server the administrator manages. The administrator investigates and discovers that the reason users cannot access the secure site is because:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 3 of 60
3. Question
A technician has completed the installation and configuration of a third email server. The technician has configured the firewall to permit email traffic, but the mail is only being received by the two older servers. Which of the following should the technician configure to ensure incoming email will be processed by all three servers?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 4 of 60
4. Question
An administrator sees a message in the system console that a drive is bad in the single-volume JBOD storage array. A few minutes later, a user calls the help desk to report an inability to read a file from a mapped drive. Which of the following should the administrator do?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 5 of 60
5. Question
A server has recently been configured as a network firewall. After the firewall was configured, users could no longer access a remote server. Which of the following, if properly configured on the firewall, will allow users to have secure access to the remote server? (Select TWO).
Correct
Correct
Option B. Allow TCP port 22
Correct because:
Port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), which provides secure remote access to servers.
Allowing this port ensures encrypted communication between users and the remote server.
This is a standard secure access method for administrators and users.
Option F. Allow TCP port 3389
Correct because:
Port 3389 is used for RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol), which allows secure remote graphical access to Windows servers.
Enabling this port ensures users can connect securely to the remote server’s desktop environment.
Together with SSH, this covers secure remote access for both Linux and Windows systems.
Incorrect
Option A. Allow TCP port 21
Incorrect because port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol).
FTP is not secure by default and is not typically used for secure remote server access.
Option C. Allow TCP port 23
Incorrect because port 23 is used for Telnet, which transmits data in plaintext.
It is insecure and should not be used for remote access in modern environments.
Option D. Allow TCP port 25
Incorrect because port 25 is used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).
This is for sending email, not for secure remote server access.
Option E. Allow TCP port 161
Incorrect because port 161 is used for SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol).
SNMP is for monitoring and management, not for secure user access to servers.
Incorrect
Correct
Option B. Allow TCP port 22
Correct because:
Port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), which provides secure remote access to servers.
Allowing this port ensures encrypted communication between users and the remote server.
This is a standard secure access method for administrators and users.
Option F. Allow TCP port 3389
Correct because:
Port 3389 is used for RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol), which allows secure remote graphical access to Windows servers.
Enabling this port ensures users can connect securely to the remote server’s desktop environment.
Together with SSH, this covers secure remote access for both Linux and Windows systems.
Incorrect
Option A. Allow TCP port 21
Incorrect because port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol).
FTP is not secure by default and is not typically used for secure remote server access.
Option C. Allow TCP port 23
Incorrect because port 23 is used for Telnet, which transmits data in plaintext.
It is insecure and should not be used for remote access in modern environments.
Option D. Allow TCP port 25
Incorrect because port 25 is used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).
This is for sending email, not for secure remote server access.
Option E. Allow TCP port 161
Incorrect because port 161 is used for SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol).
SNMP is for monitoring and management, not for secure user access to servers.
Unattempted
Correct
Option B. Allow TCP port 22
Correct because:
Port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), which provides secure remote access to servers.
Allowing this port ensures encrypted communication between users and the remote server.
This is a standard secure access method for administrators and users.
Option F. Allow TCP port 3389
Correct because:
Port 3389 is used for RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol), which allows secure remote graphical access to Windows servers.
Enabling this port ensures users can connect securely to the remote server’s desktop environment.
Together with SSH, this covers secure remote access for both Linux and Windows systems.
Incorrect
Option A. Allow TCP port 21
Incorrect because port 21 is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol).
FTP is not secure by default and is not typically used for secure remote server access.
Option C. Allow TCP port 23
Incorrect because port 23 is used for Telnet, which transmits data in plaintext.
It is insecure and should not be used for remote access in modern environments.
Option D. Allow TCP port 25
Incorrect because port 25 is used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).
This is for sending email, not for secure remote server access.
Option E. Allow TCP port 161
Incorrect because port 161 is used for SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol).
SNMP is for monitoring and management, not for secure user access to servers.
Question 6 of 60
6. Question
Multiple users report that an application attempting to open a file retrieved from a server reports that the file is corrupted. Which of the following applications can be used on the server to verify file integrity?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 7 of 60
7. Question
A new version of the primary operating system used by a company has been released. Due to some significant changes in the OS, a system administrator wants to see which remotely accessible services are enabled by default to assess the security risk prior to upgrading to the new version. Which of the following utilities should the administrator use?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 8 of 60
8. Question
A technician has access to a recent full backup. Data has changed since the last backup. Which of the following provides the fastest restore while minimizing backup size?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 9 of 60
9. Question
A new version of the primary OS used by a company has been released. Due to some significant changes in the OS, a system administrator wants to see which remotely accessible services are enabled by default to access the security risk prior to upgrading to the new version. Which of the following utilities should the administrator use?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 10 of 60
10. Question
An email administrator is tasked to set up a Linux mail server. One of the requirements is to close all ports except SSH, HTTPS, SMTP, POP3, and IMAP4. Which of the following commands should be used to see which ports are currently open on the email server? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 11 of 60
11. Question
A new server has a battery-backed RAID controller built onto the motherboard. Which of the following will occur if the RAID controller fails?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 12 of 60
12. Question
A network administrator is installing additional devices on the network. The network segment is currently utilizing all allocated IP addresses. If there are additional addresses available, which of the following would be BEST for the network administrator to perform to accommodate the new network devices?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 13 of 60
13. Question
Which of the following represents the directory permissions to provide least privilege for publicly readable directories on a Unix web server?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 14 of 60
14. Question
A newly hired administrator is tasked to change the number of CPUs assigned to a VM. Which of the following if the FIRST step the administrator should do during a scheduled maintenance window?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 15 of 60
15. Question
A user is unable to save an image file to the home directory on a server. The server technician checks the disk space and ACL on the user’s home directory and finds that the user has enough space and required access to write to the directory. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the user is unable to save the file?
Correct
Correct
Option A. The user is attempting to save a file with a prohibited file extension.
Correct because:
Many servers enforce file extension restrictions for security reasons (e.g., blocking .exe, .bat, or certain image types).
Even if the user has sufficient disk space and ACL permissions, the system may prevent saving files with disallowed extensions.
This explains why the user cannot save the image file despite having proper access and available space.
Incorrect
Option B. There are too many open files on the server.
Incorrect because while servers can hit file descriptor limits, this would affect multiple users and processes, not just one user saving a single file.
The scenario specifically points to the user’s home directory, not a system-wide resource exhaustion.
Option C. The user does not have permission to save files to the server.
Incorrect because the technician already verified that the user has the required ACL permissions to write to the directory.
Permissions are not the issue here.
Option D. The hard drive containing the user’s home directory is failing.
Incorrect because the technician confirmed there is enough disk space.
A failing drive would typically show broader symptoms (errors, corruption, system logs), not just a single user being unable to save a file.
Incorrect
Correct
Option A. The user is attempting to save a file with a prohibited file extension.
Correct because:
Many servers enforce file extension restrictions for security reasons (e.g., blocking .exe, .bat, or certain image types).
Even if the user has sufficient disk space and ACL permissions, the system may prevent saving files with disallowed extensions.
This explains why the user cannot save the image file despite having proper access and available space.
Incorrect
Option B. There are too many open files on the server.
Incorrect because while servers can hit file descriptor limits, this would affect multiple users and processes, not just one user saving a single file.
The scenario specifically points to the user’s home directory, not a system-wide resource exhaustion.
Option C. The user does not have permission to save files to the server.
Incorrect because the technician already verified that the user has the required ACL permissions to write to the directory.
Permissions are not the issue here.
Option D. The hard drive containing the user’s home directory is failing.
Incorrect because the technician confirmed there is enough disk space.
A failing drive would typically show broader symptoms (errors, corruption, system logs), not just a single user being unable to save a file.
Unattempted
Correct
Option A. The user is attempting to save a file with a prohibited file extension.
Correct because:
Many servers enforce file extension restrictions for security reasons (e.g., blocking .exe, .bat, or certain image types).
Even if the user has sufficient disk space and ACL permissions, the system may prevent saving files with disallowed extensions.
This explains why the user cannot save the image file despite having proper access and available space.
Incorrect
Option B. There are too many open files on the server.
Incorrect because while servers can hit file descriptor limits, this would affect multiple users and processes, not just one user saving a single file.
The scenario specifically points to the user’s home directory, not a system-wide resource exhaustion.
Option C. The user does not have permission to save files to the server.
Incorrect because the technician already verified that the user has the required ACL permissions to write to the directory.
Permissions are not the issue here.
Option D. The hard drive containing the user’s home directory is failing.
Incorrect because the technician confirmed there is enough disk space.
A failing drive would typically show broader symptoms (errors, corruption, system logs), not just a single user being unable to save a file.
Question 16 of 60
16. Question
An administrator needs to deploy 1,000 servers in a short period of time. Which of the following deployment methods will expedite the OS installations?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 17 of 60
17. Question
Which of the following virtual network settings should be used if the IP addresses of the host is to be shared with the virtual machine?
Correct
Correct
Option B. Bridged
Correct because:
In Bridged mode, the virtual machine connects directly to the physical network through the host’s network adapter.
This allows the VM to share the same IP address space as the host and obtain its own IP from the same DHCP server or subnet.
The VM appears as another device on the physical network, effectively sharing the host’s IP addressing scheme.
This is the method required when the VM must be accessible on the same network as the host with shared IP addressing.
Incorrect
Option A. NAT
Incorrect because NAT (Network Address Translation) allows the VM to access external networks using the host’s IP, but the VM itself gets a separate private IP address.
The VM does not truly share the host’s IP; instead, traffic is translated.
Option C. Host-only
Incorrect because Host-only networking isolates the VM from external networks.
The VM can only communicate with the host and other VMs in the same host-only network, not share the host’s IP with external devices.
Option D. Custom virtual network
Incorrect because this is a generic option that depends on specific configurations.
Unless explicitly set to bridged, it does not guarantee IP sharing with the host.
Incorrect
Correct
Option B. Bridged
Correct because:
In Bridged mode, the virtual machine connects directly to the physical network through the host’s network adapter.
This allows the VM to share the same IP address space as the host and obtain its own IP from the same DHCP server or subnet.
The VM appears as another device on the physical network, effectively sharing the host’s IP addressing scheme.
This is the method required when the VM must be accessible on the same network as the host with shared IP addressing.
Incorrect
Option A. NAT
Incorrect because NAT (Network Address Translation) allows the VM to access external networks using the host’s IP, but the VM itself gets a separate private IP address.
The VM does not truly share the host’s IP; instead, traffic is translated.
Option C. Host-only
Incorrect because Host-only networking isolates the VM from external networks.
The VM can only communicate with the host and other VMs in the same host-only network, not share the host’s IP with external devices.
Option D. Custom virtual network
Incorrect because this is a generic option that depends on specific configurations.
Unless explicitly set to bridged, it does not guarantee IP sharing with the host.
Unattempted
Correct
Option B. Bridged
Correct because:
In Bridged mode, the virtual machine connects directly to the physical network through the host’s network adapter.
This allows the VM to share the same IP address space as the host and obtain its own IP from the same DHCP server or subnet.
The VM appears as another device on the physical network, effectively sharing the host’s IP addressing scheme.
This is the method required when the VM must be accessible on the same network as the host with shared IP addressing.
Incorrect
Option A. NAT
Incorrect because NAT (Network Address Translation) allows the VM to access external networks using the host’s IP, but the VM itself gets a separate private IP address.
The VM does not truly share the host’s IP; instead, traffic is translated.
Option C. Host-only
Incorrect because Host-only networking isolates the VM from external networks.
The VM can only communicate with the host and other VMs in the same host-only network, not share the host’s IP with external devices.
Option D. Custom virtual network
Incorrect because this is a generic option that depends on specific configurations.
Unless explicitly set to bridged, it does not guarantee IP sharing with the host.
Question 18 of 60
18. Question
The Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) allows:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 19 of 60
19. Question
A technician reads a hardware manufacturer’s blog indicating a critical firmware update is available for the company’s file server. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Correct
Correct
Option C. Download the firmware update and test it on a non-production server
Correct because:
Firmware updates can introduce stability issues or incompatibilities.
The best practice is to first test the update on a non-production server to ensure it does not negatively impact operations.
This minimizes risk to critical systems and aligns with change management procedures emphasized in Server+ exam objectives.
Incorrect
Option A. Download and install a firmware update from a centralized server
Incorrect because installing directly on production systems without testing can cause downtime if the update fails.
Centralized deployment is useful, but only after the update has been validated in a safe environment.
Option B. Download the firmware update and test it on a VM
Incorrect because testing firmware updates on a VM is not valid.
Firmware updates apply to physical hardware, not virtual machines, so this option does not provide a realistic test.
Option D. Download the firmware update and immediately run it on the company’s file server
Incorrect because applying updates directly to a production server without testing is risky.
It could lead to outages, data loss, or hardware issues if the update is faulty.
Incorrect
Correct
Option C. Download the firmware update and test it on a non-production server
Correct because:
Firmware updates can introduce stability issues or incompatibilities.
The best practice is to first test the update on a non-production server to ensure it does not negatively impact operations.
This minimizes risk to critical systems and aligns with change management procedures emphasized in Server+ exam objectives.
Incorrect
Option A. Download and install a firmware update from a centralized server
Incorrect because installing directly on production systems without testing can cause downtime if the update fails.
Centralized deployment is useful, but only after the update has been validated in a safe environment.
Option B. Download the firmware update and test it on a VM
Incorrect because testing firmware updates on a VM is not valid.
Firmware updates apply to physical hardware, not virtual machines, so this option does not provide a realistic test.
Option D. Download the firmware update and immediately run it on the company’s file server
Incorrect because applying updates directly to a production server without testing is risky.
It could lead to outages, data loss, or hardware issues if the update is faulty.
Unattempted
Correct
Option C. Download the firmware update and test it on a non-production server
Correct because:
Firmware updates can introduce stability issues or incompatibilities.
The best practice is to first test the update on a non-production server to ensure it does not negatively impact operations.
This minimizes risk to critical systems and aligns with change management procedures emphasized in Server+ exam objectives.
Incorrect
Option A. Download and install a firmware update from a centralized server
Incorrect because installing directly on production systems without testing can cause downtime if the update fails.
Centralized deployment is useful, but only after the update has been validated in a safe environment.
Option B. Download the firmware update and test it on a VM
Incorrect because testing firmware updates on a VM is not valid.
Firmware updates apply to physical hardware, not virtual machines, so this option does not provide a realistic test.
Option D. Download the firmware update and immediately run it on the company’s file server
Incorrect because applying updates directly to a production server without testing is risky.
It could lead to outages, data loss, or hardware issues if the update is faulty.
Question 20 of 60
20. Question
A sever administrator implements external storage for a file server. At a later time, another administrator wants to extend this storage to a second server but is unable to simultaneously connect to two servers. Which of the following storage types was implemented by the first administrator?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 21 of 60
21. Question
An administrator has been tasked with making recommendations for purchasing disks that will support a transactional database where performance is of greatest concern and budget is secondary. Which the following disk types should the administrator recommend?
Correct
Correct
Option C. SAS
Correct because:
SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) drives are designed for enterprise-level performance.
They provide high IOPS, reliability, and faster throughput compared to SATA.
SAS disks are commonly used in transactional databases where performance is critical and budget is less of a concern.
They also support dual-port connections for redundancy and better fault tolerance.
Incorrect
Option A. FC (Fibre Channel)
Incorrect because Fibre Channel refers to a storage networking protocol, not a disk type.
While FC is used in SAN environments for high-speed connectivity, the question specifically asks about disk types, making SAS the correct choice.
Option B. iSCSI
Incorrect because iSCSI is also a protocol for transmitting SCSI commands over IP networks.
It is not a disk type but rather a transport method for storage traffic.
Option D. SATA
Incorrect because SATA drives are cheaper and provide larger storage capacity but are slower and less reliable compared to SAS.
They are better suited for archival or bulk storage, not high-performance transactional databases.
Incorrect
Correct
Option C. SAS
Correct because:
SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) drives are designed for enterprise-level performance.
They provide high IOPS, reliability, and faster throughput compared to SATA.
SAS disks are commonly used in transactional databases where performance is critical and budget is less of a concern.
They also support dual-port connections for redundancy and better fault tolerance.
Incorrect
Option A. FC (Fibre Channel)
Incorrect because Fibre Channel refers to a storage networking protocol, not a disk type.
While FC is used in SAN environments for high-speed connectivity, the question specifically asks about disk types, making SAS the correct choice.
Option B. iSCSI
Incorrect because iSCSI is also a protocol for transmitting SCSI commands over IP networks.
It is not a disk type but rather a transport method for storage traffic.
Option D. SATA
Incorrect because SATA drives are cheaper and provide larger storage capacity but are slower and less reliable compared to SAS.
They are better suited for archival or bulk storage, not high-performance transactional databases.
Unattempted
Correct
Option C. SAS
Correct because:
SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) drives are designed for enterprise-level performance.
They provide high IOPS, reliability, and faster throughput compared to SATA.
SAS disks are commonly used in transactional databases where performance is critical and budget is less of a concern.
They also support dual-port connections for redundancy and better fault tolerance.
Incorrect
Option A. FC (Fibre Channel)
Incorrect because Fibre Channel refers to a storage networking protocol, not a disk type.
While FC is used in SAN environments for high-speed connectivity, the question specifically asks about disk types, making SAS the correct choice.
Option B. iSCSI
Incorrect because iSCSI is also a protocol for transmitting SCSI commands over IP networks.
It is not a disk type but rather a transport method for storage traffic.
Option D. SATA
Incorrect because SATA drives are cheaper and provide larger storage capacity but are slower and less reliable compared to SAS.
They are better suited for archival or bulk storage, not high-performance transactional databases.
Question 22 of 60
22. Question
A technician is having problems sending a notification from a server. The technician suspects the firewall may be blocking traffic. Which of the following clients can be used to confirm the technician’s suspicions?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 23 of 60
23. Question
An administrator needs to run five CAT6 cable runs to a new server. Which of the following steps should the administrator do FIRST?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 24 of 60
24. Question
A technician needs to install an OS patch on a virtual server. Which of the following backup types should the technician perform prior to the patch installation that will allow the server to be restored the FASTEST?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 25 of 60
25. Question
A technician installs a rack in a datacenter. The rack has two power strips installed in it. To ensure maximum power redundancy for the rack, how should each
PDU power strip be connected?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 26 of 60
26. Question
Joe, a system administrator, is replacing an aging print server. Once he reached the step to join the new server to the existing domain, he kept getting an error and could not complete the step successfully. Which of the following did Joe forget to do?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 27 of 60
27. Question
A secondary office location containing servers already configured with all necessary software and files to minimize downtime is considered to be which of the following types of disaster recovery sites?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 28 of 60
28. Question
A clustered server goes offline due to a backplane failure. Which of the following clusters does not lose capacity when a server goes offline?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 29 of 60
29. Question
Which of the following RAID configurations consists of mirrored disks?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 30 of 60
30. Question
Which of the following describes a root cause analysis?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 31 of 60
31. Question
Which of the following hypervisors is physically installed on a server?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 32 of 60
32. Question
A server has two power supplies. If power is lost to the second power supply, which of the following will occur?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 33 of 60
33. Question
When setting up a new Linux server that will require files larger than 2 TB in size, which of the following file system types should be used?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 34 of 60
34. Question
A systems administrator receives an email indicating a Windows user in finance cannot access the finance server remotely but is currently logged onto the network. Which of the following ports should be checked to determine if it is listening or open?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 35 of 60
35. Question
A server has rebooted early in the morning on the second Wednesday of each month for the past three months. No one was logged into the server at the time of the reboots, and there was no planned maintenance on any of the mornings in question. Which of the following is a server technician likely to inspect FIRST to determine the cause of the reboots?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 36 of 60
36. Question
An existing server has three 1 TB 7200 RPM SATA drives and five empty drive bays. The network manager orders three 2 TB 5400 RPM SAS drives. The technician installs them properly, but when attempting to provision the drives, a message displays “Type mismatch”. Which of the following is the reason for this error message?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 37 of 60
37. Question
A server technician is configuring a remote site and must ensure an active-active, site-to-site replication is enabled to adhere to disaster recovery initiatives with little to no change between production and the remote site. Which of the following site types BEST represents the purpose of this remote site?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 38 of 60
38. Question
An outside contractor is hired to perform a business impact analysis of a simulated disaster. The contractor asks stakeholders what they think a hurricane would do to the business. This is an inadequate method because:
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 39 of 60
39. Question
An administrator is setting up LDAP in the environment to allow directory services authentication and login, and wants to allow secure connection only. Which of the following network ports should be allowed on the internal and external firewalls?
Correct
Correct
Option C. 3268
Correct because:
Port 3268 is used for Global Catalog LDAP queries in Microsoft Active Directory environments.
When configured securely (via LDAPS on port 3269), it ensures encrypted communication for directory services authentication.
Allowing this port enables secure LDAP connections for authentication and login across internal and external firewalls.
This aligns with exam objectives that emphasize secure LDAP/LDAPS ports for directory services.
Incorrect
Option A. 443
Incorrect because port 443 is used for HTTPS traffic, not LDAP.
While secure, it is unrelated to directory services authentication.
Option B. 989
Incorrect because port 989 is used for FTPS (FTP Secure data).
It does not support LDAP authentication or directory services.
Option D. 3389
Incorrect because port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP).
It allows remote management but is not related to LDAP secure authentication.
Incorrect
Correct
Option C. 3268
Correct because:
Port 3268 is used for Global Catalog LDAP queries in Microsoft Active Directory environments.
When configured securely (via LDAPS on port 3269), it ensures encrypted communication for directory services authentication.
Allowing this port enables secure LDAP connections for authentication and login across internal and external firewalls.
This aligns with exam objectives that emphasize secure LDAP/LDAPS ports for directory services.
Incorrect
Option A. 443
Incorrect because port 443 is used for HTTPS traffic, not LDAP.
While secure, it is unrelated to directory services authentication.
Option B. 989
Incorrect because port 989 is used for FTPS (FTP Secure data).
It does not support LDAP authentication or directory services.
Option D. 3389
Incorrect because port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP).
It allows remote management but is not related to LDAP secure authentication.
Unattempted
Correct
Option C. 3268
Correct because:
Port 3268 is used for Global Catalog LDAP queries in Microsoft Active Directory environments.
When configured securely (via LDAPS on port 3269), it ensures encrypted communication for directory services authentication.
Allowing this port enables secure LDAP connections for authentication and login across internal and external firewalls.
This aligns with exam objectives that emphasize secure LDAP/LDAPS ports for directory services.
Incorrect
Option A. 443
Incorrect because port 443 is used for HTTPS traffic, not LDAP.
While secure, it is unrelated to directory services authentication.
Option B. 989
Incorrect because port 989 is used for FTPS (FTP Secure data).
It does not support LDAP authentication or directory services.
Option D. 3389
Incorrect because port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP).
It allows remote management but is not related to LDAP secure authentication.
Question 40 of 60
40. Question
A datacenter customer reports the servers are having hardware failures at an unusual rate. A server technician is dispatched to the datacenter floor and notices several racks have condensation on their cold-side doors. Which of the following is the technician likely to report as the MOST likely cause of the hardware failures?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 41 of 60
41. Question
A systems administrator creates a new file server. Before the users can access the server, which of the following must be done FIRST?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 42 of 60
42. Question
A server administrator is notified of an OS hot fix for a production server. Which of the following BEST represent how the hot fix should be applied? (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 43 of 60
43. Question
A technician is setting up a server with a RAID 1 array for the boot partition and a RAID 5 array for the data partition. Which of the following is the MINIMUM number of disks needed to implement these partitions?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 44 of 60
44. Question
A customer reports their mail can send emails but not receive them. A technician arrives on-site to troubleshoot the issue. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the technician do FIRST?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 45 of 60
45. Question
A company executive asks the network administrator to help to reduce power consumption in a datacenter. The administrator suggests changing the servers running on 110V to 220V. Which of the following will occur as a result of this action?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 46 of 60
46. Question
After installing a 1 TB hard drive, a technician notices the OS is reporting significantly less unformatted capacity than was expected. Which of the following is the root cause?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 47 of 60
47. Question
At the time of implementing a solution, it is important to: (Choose two.)
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 48 of 60
48. Question
Immediately following a BIOS firmware update, a server detects an overheat condition and shuts down after five minutes. Which of the following should the systems administrator do FIRST?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 49 of 60
49. Question
After applying a set of OS patches, a systems administrator finds that, on reboot, a server hangs with a blinking cursor after the system POST. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 50 of 60
50. Question
An administrator is securing a network time server by disabling ports. After completing this process, the network time server is not functioning. The administrator should now go back and verify whether which of the following ports is enabled?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 51 of 60
51. Question
A systems administrator wants to run a report that will analyze a network’s server performance at a specific point in time. Which of the following documents would be the best practice to create?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 52 of 60
52. Question
Which of the following access control methods allows or blocks devices based on MAC addresses?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 53 of 60
53. Question
Which of the following commands displays the network path between two devices?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 54 of 60
54. Question
Which of the following is used in a server to ensure proper cooling and airflow when components are removed?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 55 of 60
55. Question
A telephone company is responsible for maintaining a list of 25 million names and phone numbers for inclusion in printed phone books as well as in an inline phone directory accessible on the company’s website. Which of the following types of servers would be MOST appropriate to store its information?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 56 of 60
56. Question
A systems administrator has performed a memory upgrade on a server. The server does not recognize the new memory. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 57 of 60
57. Question
A technician needs to install more add-on cards than there are available expansion slots. Which of the following would allow the technician to accomplish this?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 58 of 60
58. Question
An administrator is setting up a new mail server on the network and wants to open necessary ports to allow POP3 protocol for mail delivery. Which of the following ports should be opened in the internal and external firewalls?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 59 of 60
59. Question
Which of the following ports should be open on a server that provides IP addressing for clients?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
Question 60 of 60
60. Question
A manager has noticed that the staff of administrators spends a lot of time running power cords and network cables when installing new servers. The manager would like to reduce the amount of time administrators spend doing the power and network cabling. Which of the following will BEST allow staff to reduce that time?
Correct
Incorrect
Unattempted
X
Use Page numbers below to navigate to other practice tests
